@dissociatedvalue: Vft pill #marx #michaelheinrich #riccardobellofiore #economics #valueform

Ac.m :

Riccardo Bellofiore😍😍😍

bswurve :

bellofiore is the greatest human being to ever exist

Hegelian gamer1234 :

Why not Rubin Lol?!

ChinesePropagandist :

Finally or I hope so. Can you give me the names of Austrian Economics who are steelmanning Marx. I would be highly interested.

CapitalistPig :

Son 😭😂

FanonFan :

Idk about Heinrich lol

hegel fan 2002 :

Bellofiore quatriot

mintpajamas :

Didn’t recognize a single person in this video

vladislava.137 :

You missed Isaak Rubin

Kevin Esta :

Who is that?

deleuzional :

gm x bellofiore 🔥

biskit89 :

Michel Kalecki

mandragola_ohne_zweck :

besterd_ :

engles Neue lekture is coming

𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒍𝒆🐍🪽 :

Forgot Böhm-Bawerk... can you logically defend the transformation problem? . Why did Marx add 22% of average profit to the cost price from I-V which wasn't expressed as a percentage, only in DENOMINATIONS. It is absurd to add percentages to the cost price... Additionally, 22% were taken from the average for all 5 industries... This means that if you calculate the cost price, i.e. INDIVIDUAL surplus value + used-up capital (used-up c) to the average rate of profit (which is not a nominal value but a percentage LOL), then... your deviations will be zero... These are the basics of arithmetic mean and creative accounting. As you can see, the surplus value is different: it's 20 etc. The value of commodities is high: it's c+v+v. However, Marx does a trick: he assumes cost price and then adds the average. Average is always individualized for every indicator here. So clearly, if the second V is replaced by 22, you will have a difference according to the second V and since all these have distance, we will gain profit "above or below the value". And the sum up of these derivations? Completely absurd. If your profit is 40, according to variable capital, then 22% is just a lie: you add percent to the denomination. Of course all these - and + will go to zero, because all the difference will go to zero, because Marx put special numbers. If we had for example surplus value of 100 of surplus value, then yes, we will have a pure minus. However this operation is done after dividing by the mean. We would have to divide by 100 to individualize the results to the mean.

coltemonikha :

🗿🍷👌