@inspiringphilosophy: BIG Error in the Quran

Inspiring Philosophy
Inspiring Philosophy
Open In TikTok:
Region: US
Saturday 02 May 2026 17:51:57 GMT
99231
9405
90
435

Music

Download

Comments

theguardianofamerica1
The Guardian of America :
Hey Can you debate Parker
2026-05-02 18:26:39
6
jeremyws689
Jeremy WS :
Who thinks I should read the Quran? I am considering reading the Quran. ❤️
2026-05-02 21:30:47
51
fsariyan6
Ariyan Khan :
The Quran specifies that Pharaoh drowned in a sea (often translated from the Arabic word al-bahr or al-yamm), but it does not explicitly name it as the "Red Sea" in the text itself.
2026-05-06 03:50:33
0
tareqdubai
tareqdubai :
This argument depends on assumptions that are never proven. The claim is that the Qur'an says Pharaoh drowned and his body was preserved, while the Bible supposedly does not clearly say Pharaoh drowned. Then Qur'an 5:68 is quoted to argue that Muslims must accept the Bible exactly as it exists today. But Qur'an 10:90–92 is internally consistent: Pharaoh was overtaken by the sea, he believed too late, and Allah preserved his body as a sign for later generations. Even if some scholars debate whether Exodus explicitly states Pharaoh drowned, that would only be a difference between the Qur'anic account and one interpretation of the biblical account. It is not a contradiction within the Qur'an itself. The bigger problem is the use of Qur'an 5:68. The verse tells the People of the Book to uphold the Torah and Gospel revealed by God. It does not say that every later manuscript, translation, or interpretation is perfectly preserved. In fact, the Qur'an also speaks of some People of the Book concealing or distorting revelation. Furthermore, Psalm 136:15 says God overthrew Pharaoh and his army in the sea, so even within biblical scholarship the matter is debated. The alleged contradiction only works if you first assume that Muslims must accept the modern Bible in every detail and that one interpretation of Exodus overrides the Qur'an. Neither assumption comes from Qur'an 5:68.
2026-06-02 01:49:32
1
thecalling7
The calling :
Thanks 🙏🏻
2026-06-03 07:33:14
1
spardas3rdson
mel :
2026-05-13 18:54:39
4
yardward0
Yard :
@Maurice Bucaille
2026-05-24 10:04:09
1
rocket_edits39
rocket :
first🥹
2026-05-02 17:55:50
15
faimsings
Faim :
What’s with the “we”. I thought Allah was one. Can someone explain?
2026-05-02 20:26:39
18
t431524
Tesfa :
Noooo why would you think
2026-05-02 18:06:06
108
james.r8391
James R :
NoooOOoo why would you think
2026-05-02 19:09:21
64
kingdombuilder40
Kingdom Builder :
One of the things I was kind of confused about was how Abraham was able to talk with Nimrod in the Quran when according to the Bible there’s a 7 generation gap roughly.
2026-05-02 19:51:05
21
a1shareef
SAAD ALSHAREEF :
You are assuming that the absence of direct archaeological evidence means the event did not happen, but if you apply that standard consistently, it would undermine a large portion of the history you already accept. Figures like Socrates and Homer, and events like Hannibal’s crossing of the Alps, do not have definitive archaeological proof, yet they are taught as historical facts. So using absence of evidence as evidence of absence is a clear methodological error. Then you base your argument on the assumption that the Pharaoh of the Exodus was Ramesses II, which is not a settled fact among scholars, but a debated hypothesis. Building a definitive conclusion on an uncertain foundation is logically weak. As for the mummy, science cannot determine the exact cause of death with certainty after thousands of years, especially with mummification, so at best you have uncertainty, not proof that he did not drown. Your claim that the Bible does not say Pharaoh drowned is also selective. Passages like Psalms suggest Pharaoh was cast into the sea, so even within your own texts the issue is not as clear-cut as you present it. Now to your main argument, the so-called “Islamic dilemma.” You assume only two options: either the previous scriptures are completely true or completely corrupted. This is a false dichotomy. Islam does not claim either of these extremes; it states that there is truth in them alongside alteration. Your entire argument collapses because it is built on this incorrect assumption. Regarding the verse “ask those who read the scripture before you,” it is not an instruction to take their books as a final authority. It is a rhetorical challenge, pointing out that even they have remnants of the same narratives. This does not mean their entire scripture is preserved or authoritative. Finally, differences between the Qur’an and earlier texts do not automatically mean error. From the Islamic perspective, they represent correction. If the Qur’an matched them completely, you would say it copied them, and if it differs, you call it a contradiction. That is a double standard.
2026-05-02 23:27:54
14
ziggy4828
Ziggy :
Can someone like this please...
2026-05-02 19:42:06
5
sarahebeth1993
SarahEbeth1993 :
Doesn't the Quran also leave out the passover in Egypt when talking about the signs that Moses gave? It mentions 9 but leaves out the 10th.
2026-05-03 13:30:24
1
him19661
Badr :
2026-05-03 12:14:51
0
skyie_animations
ℳɨĸai_Na :
u took it out of context
2026-05-13 19:37:09
0
mbshupin
Ragaboo :
“Noooo. Why would you think that?”
2026-05-05 02:46:10
3
simusoul
Simu :
IP is shadow banned
2026-05-02 19:13:07
4
rashnycphqp
Romeo :
Seriously great work, god bless you man.
2026-05-05 04:01:37
1
shelomithebeloved
Shelomi The Beloved :
2026-05-03 07:40:02
2
To see more videos from user @inspiringphilosophy, please go to the Tikwm homepage.

Other Videos


About